Indian Polity GK Quiz-43

Indian Polity GK Quiz-43

Indian Polity Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) Quiz for State and UPSC Civil Services Examinations. Objective Questions on Indian Polity for competitive examinations.

    41. The seventy third Amendment Act, 1992 of the Indian Constitution was passed to 

    (1) strengthen Panchayti Raj
    (2) strengthen rural institutions
    (3) strengthen urban institution
    (4) None of the above
    Answer:
    41. (1) The Constitution (Seventy-third Amendment) Act, 1992 accorded the Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) a constitutional status. The main features of the 73rd Amendment Act are the following: Constitution of a three tier structure of Panchayats in every state (at village, intermediate and district levels) having a population of twenty lakhs; Fixed tenure for Panchayat bodies (Article 243E); etc.

    42. Articles 74 and 75 of Indian Constitution deal with matters of

    (1) the Council of Ministers
    (2) the Speaker of Lok Sabha
    (3) the President of India
    (4) the Cabinet Ministers
    Answer:
    42. (1) Article 74 of the Constitution of the Republic of India provides for a Council of Ministers which shall aid the President in the exercise of his functions. Article 75 states that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People.

    43. A proceeding under Article 226 in case of detention of a person is a

    (1) Civil proceeding
    (2) Criminal proceeding
    (3) Judicial proceeding
    (4) Statutory proceeding
    Answer:
    43. (2) Under the writ of Habeas Corpus, the Court intervenes and asks the authority to provide the
    reasons for such detention. All proceedings under Article 226 are either civil or criminal. When a person asks for a writ of Habeas Corpus, that is a criminal proceeding. But when a person asks for any other writ than the Habeas Corpus, the proceedings are necessarily civil proceedings.

    44. Which Schedule of the Constitution deals with the disqualification of elected members on the ground of defection?

    (1) 8th 
    (2) 9th
    (3) 10th 
    (4) 11th
    Answer:
    44. (3) The 10th Schedule to the Indian Constitution, that is popularly referred to as the 'Anti-Defection Law' was inserted by the 52nd Amendment to the Constitution in 1985. It has provisions for Members
    of Parliament and Members of the State Legislatures. 

    45. According to Article 75 (3) of the Constitution of India the Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the

    (1) President 
    (2) Parliament
    (3) Lok Sabha 
    (4) Rajya Sabha
    Answer:
    45. (2) Article 75 states that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People.

    46. India has been described under Article-1 of the Constitution as a

    (1) Federation
    (2) Federation, with a strong unitary bias
    (3) Confederation
    (4) Union of States
    Answer:
    46. (4) Article 1 of the Constitution declares that India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States; the sates and the territories thereof shall be as specified in the First Schedule; and the territory of India shall comprise the territories of the States, the Union territories specified in the First Schedule; and such other territories as may be acquired.

    47. The two words that were inserted by the 42nd Amendment to the Preamble of the Constitution are

    (1) Secular, Democratic
    (2) Sovereign, Democratic
    (3) Socialist, Secular
    (4) Secular, Republic
    Answer:
    47. (3) The Forty-second Amendment of the Constitution of India, enacted in 1976, declared India to be a socialist and secular republic, and as securing fraternity assuring the unity "and integrity" of the
    Nation, by adding these words to the Preamble of the Constitution of India.

    48. 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1985 deals with

    (1) Union Territories
    (2) Defection and disqualification
    (3) Extending reservation
    (4) Abolition of privy purses
    Answer:
    48. (2) The 52nd Constitutional Amendment of 1985 amended articles 101, 102, 190 and 191; and inserted Schedule 10 to the Constitution of India. It dealt with the Anti Defection Law and provided disqualification of members from parliament and assembly in case of defection from one party to other.

    49. In the Constitution of India, the ‘Right to Constitutional Remedies’ has been provided in Article

    (1) 30 
    (2) 31
    (3) 32 
    (4) 35
    Answer:
    49. (3) The Right to constitutional remedies is given in Article 32 under Part III of the Indian Constitution. it is a fundamental right and empowers the citizens to move a court of law in case of any denial of the fundamental rights.

    50. Which amendments to the Constitution provide for the reservation of one-third seats in the Municipal Boards and Village Panchayats for women?

    (1) 73rd and 74th Amendments
    (2) 82nd and 83rd Amendments
    (3) 72nd and 73rd Amendments
    (4) 74th and 75th Amendments and Oridinary Law
    Answer:
    50. (1) The 73rd and 74th consti-tutional amendments dealt with the organization of local governments in India: Panchayats and Nagarpalikas respectively. These amendments, while elaborating the powers,
    functions and other aspects related to decentralized governance, provided for reservation to women in such bodies.

    51. By which constitutional amendment political defections were banned?

    (1) The Fiftieth amendment of 1984
    (2) The Fifty-third amendment of 1986
    (3) The Fifty-fourth amendment of 1986
    (4) The Fifty-second amendment of 1985
    Answer:
    51. (4) The 10th Schedule to the Indian Constitution, that is popularly referred to as the 'Anti-Defection Law' was inserted by the 52nd Amendment to the Constitution. It has provisions for Members of
    Parliament and Members of the State Legislatures.

    52. The system of privy purses in respect of former rulers of Indian States before Independence was abolished by the Constitution through

    (1) 26th Amendment Act, 1971
    (2) 27th Amendment Act, 1971
    (3) 38th Amendment Act, 1975
    (4) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
    Answer:
    52. (1) The 26th constitutional amendment of 1971 amended article 366, inserted article 363 A; removed articles 291 and 362 and abolished privy purse paid to former rulers of princely states which were incorporated into the Indian Republic.

    53. Which constitutional Amendment deleted the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights?

    (1) 42nd Amendment
    (2) 62nd Amendment
    (3) 44th Amendment
    (4) 43rd Amendment
    Answer:
    53. (3) The Constitution originally provided for the right to property under Articles 19 and 31. The Forty-Forth Amendment of 1978 deleted the right to property from the list of fundamental rights. So it is now a legal right, not a fundamental right.

    54. In the Constitution of India, which Article mentions about the establishment of Welfare State in India ?

    (1) 99 
    (2) 39
    (3) 59 
    (4) 69
    Answer:
    54. (*) One of the salient features of the Indian constitution is the effort to establish a welfare state. Article 38 of the Constitution reads: "The state shall strive to promote the welfare the people by securing and protecting as effectively as it may, a social order in which justice-social economic and political-shall pervade all institutions of national life." provides a broad framework for the establishment of the welfare state ideal.

    55. By which Constitutional Amendment Bill, did the Parliament lower the voting age from 21 to 18 years?

    (1) 42nd 
    (2) 44th
    (3) 61st 
    (4) 73rd
    Answer:
    55. (3) The Constitution (61st Amendment) Act, 1989 lowered the voting age from 21 to 18.

    56. Article -1 of the Indian Constitution declares “India that is Bharat” is a:

    (1) Union of States
    (2) Federal State with Unitary features
    (3) Unitary State with federal features
    (4) Federal State
    Answer:
    56. (1) Article 1 under Part I of the Constitution of India states that “India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States.”

    57. The National Emergency in India declared by the President of India due to the external aggression or armed revolt through 

    (1) Article-352 
    (2) Article-356
    (3) Article-360 
    (4) Article-368
    Answer:
    57. (1) Under article 352 of Constitution, the President can declare such an emergency (caused by war, external aggression or armed rebellion) only on the basis of a written request by the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister. Such a proclamation must be approved by the Parliament within one month.

    58. Which has become a legal right under 44th Amendment?

    (1) Right to Education
    (2) Right to Property
    (3) Right to Judicial Remedies
    (4) Right to Work
    Answer:
    58. (2) The 44th amendment eliminated the right to acquire, hold and dispose of property as a fundamental right. However, in another part of the Constitution, Article 300 (A) was inserted to affirm that no person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law.

    59. By which Constitution Amendment Act, Right to Property ceased to remain a fundamental right?

    (1) 44th 
    (2) 42nd
    (3) 43rd 
    (4) 45th
    Answer:
    59. (1) The 44th amendment of 1978 eliminated the right to acquire, hold and dispose of property as a
    fundamental right. The Constitution originally provided for the right to property under Articles 19 and 31. 

    60. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution, the decision of the Central Administrative Tribunal can be challenged in the Supreme Court ?

    (1) 323 A 
    (2) 329
    (3) 343 C 
    (4) 343 K
    Answer:
    60. (1) The Central Administrative Tribunal was established in pursuance of Article 323-A of the Constitution. According to this article, the Parliament may by law exclude the jurisdiction of all Courts, except the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under Article 136 with respect to the disputes or complaints regarding the CAT.

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