Indian Polity GK Quiz-9

Indian Polity GK Quiz-9

Indian Polity Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) Quiz for State and UPSC Civil Services Examinations. Objective Questions on Indian Polity for competitive examinations.

    21. To which of the following Bills the President must accord his sanction without sending it back for fresh consideration ?

    (1) Ordinary Bills
    (2) Money Bills
    (3) Bills passed by both Houses of the Parliament
    (4) Bill seeking amendment to the Constitution
    Answer:
    21. (2) Money Bills are those that are classified under Article 110 (1) of the Constitution of India. The
    President may either give or withhold his assent to a Money Bill. Under the Constitution, a Money Bill
    cannot be returned to the House by the President for reconsideration.

    22. Where in the Indian Constitution has “economic justice” been provided as one of the objectives?

    (1) mental Rights
    (2) Directive Principles
    (3) Fundamental Rights
    (4) Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles
    Answer:
    22. (2) The Directive Principles are an amalgam of diverse subjects embracing the life of the nation and include principles which are general statements of social policy, principles of administrative policy, socioeconomic rights and a statement of the international policy of the country. Articles 41-43A and Article 48 specifically target the working sections of the nation and provide for the betterment of the workers and their living conditions.

    23. Which one of the following is not enumerated as a right in the Constitution of India ?

    (1) Political and social right
    (2) Educational right
    (3) Economic right
    (4) Right to religion
    Answer:
    23. (3) Political groups have demanded that the right to work, the right to economic assistance in case of unemployment, old age, and similar rights be enshrined as constitutional guarantees to address
    issues of poverty and economic insecurity, though these provisions have been enshrined in the Directive
    Principles of state policy.

    24. Which one of the following is not mentioned in the Preamble to the Constitution of India ?

    (1) Justice
    (2) Fraternity
    (3) Adult franchise
    (4) Equality of position
    Answer:
    24. (3) The preamble to the Constitution of India is a brief introductory statement that sets out the guiding purpose and principles of the document. The Preamble mentions Justice, social, economic and
    political; LIBERTY, of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship; EQUALITY of status and of
    opportunity; and FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the
    Nation.

    25. The Indian Constitution recognises minorities on the basis of

    (1) Religion
    (2) Caste
    (3) Percentage of the population of the Group to the total population
    (4) Colour
    Answer:
    25. (3) There is only one article pertaining to the Minorities in the Constitution of India. Article 30 of the Constitution provides that all minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. The Constitution thus envisages that
    minorities can be based on religion or language. Minorities are identified on the basis of percentage
    of the population of the Group to the total population .

    26. A writ of Mandamus can be issued by the Supreme Court to

    (1) an official to perform public duty
    (2) the Prime Minister to dissolve the Cabinet
    (3) the company to raise wages
    (4) the Government to pay the salaries to employees
    Answer:
    26. (1) The term “mandamus” literally means “command.” Writ of mandamus is issued to a person or lower level Court or a body by a superior Court. The writ of mandamus is either issued to oblige a person or the Court or a body for the execution of public duty or imposed on them to restrain them from executing a particular act. The writ of mandamus is an effective writ that checks the functioning of the government. The writ of mandamus is also popularly known as the writ of justice as it plays a significant role in rectifying the improper and irresponsible actions of government officials and it serves the purpose of almost all other writs.

    27. How many Fundamental Duties are included in Indian Constitution ?

    (1) Nine 
    (2) Ten
    (3) Eleven 
    (4) Twelve
    Answer:
    27. (3) The Fundamental Duties of citizens were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976, upon the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee that was constituted by the government earlier that year. Originally ten in number, the Fundamental Duties were increased to eleven by the 86th Amendment in 2002, which added a duty on every parent or guardian to ensure that their child or ward was provided opportunities for education between the ages of six and fourteen years.

    28. The right to vote in elections to a Parliament is a

    (1) Fundamental Right
    (2) Constitutional Right
    (3) Legal Right
    (4) Natural Right
    Answer:
    28. (2) It is a constitutional right. Article 326(in Part XV) of the Constitution gives this right. It is not a
    Fundamental right. 

    29. Which of the following is not a ‘Fundamental Right’ ?

    (1) Right to Equality
    (2) Right to Property
    (3) Right to Freedom
    (4) Right to Constitutional Remedies
    Answer:
    29. (2) The right to property, also known as the right to protection of property, is a human right and is
    understood to establish an entitlement to private property. The Constitution originally provided for the
    right to property under Articles 19 and 31. Article 19 guaranteed to all citizens the right to acquire, hold
    and dispose of property. Article 31 provided that “no person shall be deprived of his property save by
    authority of law.” It also provided that compensation would be paid to a person whose property has been taken for public purposes. The provisions relating to the right to property were changed a number of times. The Forty-Forth Amendment of 1978 deleted the right to property from the list of fundamental rights

    30. The Fundamental Rights in our Constitution are inspired by the Constitution of

    (1) United States of America
    (2) United Kingdom
    (3) Switzerland
    (4) Canada
    Answer:
    30. (1) The development of constitutionally guaranteed fundamental human rights in India was inspired by historical examples such as England’s Bill of Rights (1689), the United States Bill of Rights (approved on 17 September, 1787, final ratification on 15 December, 1791) and France’s Declaration of the Rights of Man (created during the revolution of 1789, and ratified on 26 August, 1789).

    31. Under the Constitution, the power to issue a writ of Habeas Corpus is vested in

    (1) High Courts alone
    (2) Supreme Court alone
    (3) Both Supreme Court and High Courts
    (4) All Courts down to the District Courts
    Answer:
    31. (3) Indian Constitution has adopted 5 Prerogative writs. Article 13 clearly states that Laws inconsistent with or in derogation of the fundamental rights are void. The Supreme Court (Under Article 32) and the High Courts (Under Article 226) are empowered to issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights against any authority of the State.

    32. Which of the following is a bulwark of personal freedom ?

    (1) Mandamus
    (2) Habeas corpus
    (3) Quo-Warranto
    (4) Certiorari
    Answer:
    32. (2) Habeas corpus is a bulwark of personal freedom. It is a legal action, or writ, through which a person can seek relief from the unlawful detention of him or herself, or of another person. It protects the individual from harming him or herself, or from being harmed by the judicial system. The writ of habeas corpus has historically been an important instrument for the safeguarding of individual freedom against arbitrary state action.

    33. The writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights are issued by

    (1) The Parliament
    (2) The President
    (3) The Supreme Court
    (4) The Election Commi-ssion
    Answer:
    33. (3) Under the Indian legal system, jurisdiction to issue ‘prerogative writs’ is given to the Supreme Court, and to the High Courts of Judicature of all Indian states. Parts of the law relating to writs are set forth in the Constitution of India. The Supreme Court, the highest in the country, may issue writs under Article 32 of the Constitution for enforcement of Fundamental Rights and under Articles 139 for enforcement of rights other than Fundamental Rights, while High Courts, the superior courts of the States, may issue writs under Articles 226.

    34. Evaluate the following statements :

    (I) The legal interpretation of equality is chiefly influenced by equality before law and equal protection of law
    (II) Equality before law means rule of law
    (1) I is correct but II is incorrect
    (2) II is correct but I is incorrect
    (3) Both are correct
    (4) Both are incorrect
    Answer:
    34. (3) Equality before the law, also known as legal equality, is the principle under which all people are subject to the same laws of justice (due process). Article 14 of Indian Constitution declares that “the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or equal protection of the laws within the territory of India”. Equality before the law is an expression of English Common Law while “equal protection of laws” owes its origin to the American Constitution. Both the phrases aim to establish what is called the “equality to status and of opportunity” as embodied in the Preamble of the Constitution. The rule of law is a legal maxim whereby governmental decisions are made by applying known legal principles. Rule of law implies that every citizen is subject to the law. Rule of Law means (a) equality before the law, (b) every citizen is subject to the ordinary law of the land and (c) the citizen has to face trial in the same law courts, irrespective of his status or position in the society.

    35. A writ issued by the Supreme Court compelling a quasijudicial/public authority to perform its mandatory duty is

    (1) Quo warranto
    (2) Mandamus
    (3) Certiorari
    (4) Prohibition
    Answer:
    35. (2) The term “mandamus” literally means “command.” Mandamus is a judicial remedy which is in the form of an order from a superior court to any government subordinate court, corporation or public authority to do or forbear from doing some specific act which that body is obliged under law to do or refrain from doing, as the case may be, and which is in the nature of public duty and in certain cases of a statutory duty.

    36. By which of the following modes can citizenship be acquired ?

    i. By Birth
    ii. Hereditary
    iii. By Registration
    iv. By Request
    (1) i and ii 
    (2) i, ii and iii
    (3) ii and iii 
    (4) iv, ii and iii
    Answer:
    36. (2) Any person born in India, on or after 26 January, 1950 but prior to the commencement of the 1986 Act on 1 July, 1987, is a citizen of India by birth. The Central Government may, on an application,
    register as a citizen of India under section 5 of the Citizenship Act 1955 any person (not being an illegal
    migrant) if he belongs to certain categories. Persons born outside India on or after 26 January, 1950 but
    before 10 December, 1992 are citizens of India by descent if their father was a citizen of India at the
    time of their birth.

    37. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that fundamental rights are unamendable ?

    (1) A. K. Gopalan’s case
    (2) Keshvananda Bharti’s case
    (3) M. C. Mehta’s case
    (4) Golak Nath’s case
    Answer:
    37. (2) In 1967, in Golak Nath vs. The State of Punjab, a bench of eleven judges (such a large bench constituted for the first time) of the Supreme Court deliberated as to whether any part of the Fundamental Rights provisions of the constitution could be revoked or limited by amendment of the constitution. This question had previously been considered in Shankari Prasad v. Union of India and Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan. In both cases, the power to amend the rights had been upheld on the basis of Article 368. Six years later in 1973, thirteen judges of the Supreme Court, including then Chief Justice Sikri, heard arguments in Kesavananda Bharati v. The State of Kerala and thus considered the validity of the 24th, 25th and 29th amendments, and more basically the correctness of the decision in the Golak Nath case. This time, the court held, by the thinnest of margins of 7-6, that although no part of the constitution, including fundamental rights, was beyond the amending power of Parliament (thus overruling the 1967 case), the “basic structure of the Constitution could not be abrogated even by a constitutional amendment”.

    38. ‘Directive Principles’ in our Constitution are

    (1) enforceable in the courts of law
    (2) quasi-enforceable
    (3) partly non-enforceable
    (4) non-enforceable in the courts of law
    Answer:
    38. (4) The Directive Principles of State Policy are guidelines to the central and state governments of
    India, to be kept in mind while framing laws and policies. These provisions, contained in Part IV of
    the Constitution of India, are not enforceable by any court, but the principles laid down therein are
    considered fundamental in the governance of the country, making it the duty of the State to apply these
    principles in making laws to establish a just society in the country.

    39. Which of the following expressions does not figure in the Preamble to the Indian Constitution?

    (1) Sovereign Democratic Republic
    (2) Socialist
    (3) Secular
    (4) Federal
    Answer:
    39. (4) As originally enacted the preamble described the state as a “sovereign democratic republic”. In 1976 the Forty-second Amendment changed this to read “sovereign socialist secular democratic republic”

    40. Right to property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights during the rule of

    (1) Indira Gandhi Government
    (2) Morarji Desai Government
    (3) Narasimha Rao Government
    (4) Vajpayee Government
    Answer:
    40. (2) The Constitution originally provided for the right to property under Articles 19 and 31. Article 19 guaranteed to all citizens the right to acquire, hold and dispose of property. Article 31 provided that “no person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law.” It also provided that compensation would be paid to a person whose property has been taken for public purposes. The Forty-Forth Amendment of 1978 deleted the right to property from the list of fundamental rights.

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